World War 2 FORUM
no declaration of war in 1939
js
Why is it that neither France nor the UK declared war on the USSR after Stalin invaded Poland in september 1939?
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RESPONSES
| Draconifer |
1
The phrase "you and what army" comes to mind.
That would certainly be a very ambitious move.
Strategically it would make no sense.
It would in effect unite Stalin and the Reich against a common enemy.
Anyone in the British high command would tell you that the infamous
Non-aggression pact was only delaying the inevitable.
War between Stalinist Russia and the ambitious Third Reich was imminent.
They would be doing the allied cause an immense disservice
by declaring war on Russia. The high command might also paraphrase
Caesar's commentary on the Gallic Wars by "playing barbarian against
barbarian". That was the likely intention. No reason to alienate a potential
ally prematurely.
Posted: 02-Jul-2009 02:32
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| Draconifer |
2
Yes Sir, in fact the allies as they stood were openly courting
Stalin's intervention. It was inevitable that a fractitious Europe
was not big enough for two such meglomanics intent on
global domination. Stalinist Russia was deemed the lesser of two evils at the time, while Hitler's Reich was the more imminent threat looming. People were under so such delusions about a benign Soviet Russia. The idea was another front opened would alleviate pressure when it counted, unlike the Great War. Predictably Hitler maniacally blundered into an ill-conceived war with Russia. Like Napolean before him he became history.
Posted: 02-Jul-2009 04:59
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| paul_atrydes |
3
Because in the confidential appendix to the agreement on mutual aid between England and Poland has been specified that it is directed only against Germany.
Posted: 05-Jul-2009 12:39
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